Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for professors, theologians, and those interested in exegetical analysis of biblical texts. Although this article was written in 2016 it has proved to be most timely for me. In the grammar of several languages, plural forms tend to be perceived as deferential and more polite than singular forms. All rights reserved. If you have any additional info please let me know? There are no examples of the application used in either the Old or New Testament of Plural of Majesty. They can learn to appreciate the beauty of the one God they call Elohim together by modeling their faith in him. See the majestic plural "lord" in Gen 24:9 and 42:30 and the majestic plural "elohim" in Exo 7:1 and Jdg 11:24. This grammatical feature is common in languages that have the TV distinction. 28:19). It is also called the plural of respect, the honorific plural, the plural of excellence, or the plural of intensity. page 207, Last edited on 10 February 2023, at 05:13, Learn how and when to remove this template message, "The Cordillera of the Andes Boundary Case", "Politeness in Early Modern English: the second person pronouns", "Ioannes Paulus PP. Please also research the statement of William Sanford LaSor in p.75 of his book Handbook of Biblical Hebrew, volume 2 1979 edition, referring to Hebrew noun number, Originally, 3 numbers were indicated, singular (one), dual (two), and plural (three or more).. Does Biblical Hebrew have a plural of majesty? Why must a product of symmetric random variables be symmetric? Plural of Majesty fails because we find plural references to both God and individual men. Plural of Majesty comes from the Latin, "pluralis majestaticus" and is also known as "singular of intensity". In Commonwealth realms, the sovereign discharges their commissions to ranked military officers in the capacity of we. From this verse on it is the LORD God, not just Elohim (in order to make a distinction to the reader), that speaks to these (spirit beings) elohim (Gen.3:22;11:6-7; Isa.6.8); as the Most High Elohim of the divine counsel (Ps.89:5-8). Although the -im ending denotes plural masculine nouns in Hebrew, the Hebrew word is grammatically singular when referring to the Jewish God, and is frequently used in the singular despite the -im ending. A royal we would be a pronoun. Instead of speaking of "my rule," a king might speak of "our rule" over the land, even if he was speaking only of himself. 6.) How did StorageTek STC 4305 use backing HDDs? What is the evidence that pre-Islamic Arabic had a plural of majesty? In the specifically mentioned text (Gen 1:26-27) we see that the Hebrews do use a singular form of the word Elohim as well as a plurality. (Of course just as drunkenness is condemned, except when you are getting your leg amputated for medical reasons, so too are blood transfusions exempt from all prohibitions on blood, on the basis of medical necessity.). While this practice did not affect the non-Chinese countries as much since their variants of zhn () and other terms were generally imported loanwords, the practice of polite avoidance of pronouns nevertheless spread throughout East Asia. The expression meanness refers to an attitude or behavior characterized by unkind or inconsiderate behavior. The plural pronoun "Us" is most likely a majestic plural from the standpoint of Hebrew grammar and syntax. The Hebrew word adar means majestic, and it aptly captures the grandeur and magnificence of our Lord, YHWH. He may have been one of the first to theorize about it. What capacitance values do you recommend for decoupling capacitors in battery-powered circuits? Article. Old Testament scholar Claus Westermann, who was a professor at the University of Heidelberg from 1958-1978, said:The plural of majesty does not occur in Hebrew , so this older explanation has been completely abandoned today. If plural, how come they do not have at the end? "Let there be light," or "He is becoming light?". Rudolph B. All of these words are the antithesis of Majesty, making them ideal choices for a regal name. Parents looking for a unique name that pays homage to royalty while remaining understated should consider adding it to their babys name list. Nor can the plural be regarded as merely indicating the way in which God summons Himself to energy, for the use of the language is against this (Gen. ii. In this quotation, underlining has been added to the words that exemplify the use of the majestic plural. By clicking Accept all cookies, you agree Stack Exchange can store cookies on your device and disclose information in accordance with our Cookie Policy. Are there conventions to indicate a new item in a list? Elohim Et has been used as the subjects 9 times in Genesis 1. Therefore, we must face the question of who is included in this us and our. It could hardly include the angels in consultation with God, for nowhere is it ever stated that man was created in the image of angels, only of God. Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers. Why do most languages have a different form for singular vs plural nouns? The majestic plural is also known as the "royal we." ), Genesis 1:26 is a special verse, being unique in using a plural verb with "elohim" when referencing the true God. So it'd be projecting a later term and projecting it back. The plural here indicates the sum of splendor and greatness that has been bestowed upon one monarch (Tithglath-pileser III), as some scholars believe. In other contexts, the term can be used to refer to objects of great importance, such as a museum or a monument. Which is closer to Biblical Hebrew - Modern Hebrew, or Modern Arabic? The almost exclusive use of the plural elohim for God and adonai for Lord, make a strong case that any honest seeker could see. So whomever the other individual(s) may be in Genesis 1:26, it is not at all clear that the verse establishes them on an equality with God. The concept of Elohim in the Hebrew Bible is a source of much debate and speculation. Assuming that "that ancient hebrew knows no majestic plural." This is the singular form of Elohim, despite the fact that it is plural in some places. By AARON EMBER, PH.D., Baltimore, Md. If a noun is dual, its accompanying adjective will be plural.Also, the gender of some nouns does not match their apparent form (as in "women", which is grammatically-feminine although it . ", Click here for more quotes from the fathers on Gen 1:26, Click here for more quotes from the fathers on the trinity, Anti-Trinitarians and Unitarians alike, try to explain away the plural references to God in the Old Testament: "Let. This can only be understood in terms of the Trinitarian nature of God. says the Lord of hosts" Mal 1:6. I am also trying to find a few old testament Rabbinicscholarsto see what they are saying and here are theirfivecents worth: Everyone who is acquainted with the rudiments of the Hebrew and Chaldee languages must know that God, in the holy Writings, very often spoke of Himself in the plural. How do you get out of a corner when plotting yourself into a corner, The number of distinct words in a sentence. The origin of the form is a different matter. It only takes a minute to sign up. The Jews often substitute the expression "the Name" for the actual name of the Lord, so that they do not even accidentally give offense to the Lord. "Plural of Majesty", "pluralis majestaticus", "singular of intensity", the "Royal we". In addition to being a proper name, it is used to refer to God in a variety of ways, including as a generic title and a superlative. Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers. [2], In the public situations in which it is used, the monarch or other dignitary is typically speaking not only in their own personal capacity but also in an official capacity as leader of a nation or institution. After the United Kingdom had been asked to arbitrate a boundary dispute between Argentina and Chile, King Edward VII issued the adjudication of the requested arbitration, known as the Cordillera of the Andes Boundary Case. Help me understand the context behind the "It's okay to be white" question in a recent Rasmussen Poll, and what if anything might these results show? While it is traditionally understood to be a singular term, some scholars argue that it may in fact be a plural of majesty, a grammatical construction used to emphasize the greatness of the subject. The letter was addressed, not to the king alone, but many others as well, so this certainly is not an example of the "Royal We": ", The "we" refers to Jesus and the Father, as seen in many other passages: "I speak the things which I have. Please try to see if you can bundle your edits together, or avoid making trivial ones. #\. boOHT0z981 rKa!uM>okr[]>rv{WKk=/1Pv~C|\mN{Y]5n-wT&:)tT04-L8+wNotAY!G|?# #;xs1R%m"9zCjv;]x~ }s}Q;# qr82kjUwq'whc";T. Jesus' use of the plural WE (Jesus and Father) is also in response to Nicodemus' use of WE (John 3:2: Nicodemus and the other leaders). Obviously Hebrew had the majestic plural. It is a plural word to refer honorifically to a single person or entity such plural forms are most commonly used when referring to the God also it can also be used when referring to a human. There are no examples in the either the Old or New Testament of Plural of Majesty. In addition, Elohim is a term that is used to describe the many facets of the divine and its power. This usage is called the " Plural of Majesty ". Thanks for contributing an answer to Linguistics Stack Exchange! [7] The earliest known use of this poetic device is somewhere in the 4th century AD, during the Byzantine period; nevertheless, scholars as Mircea Eliade,[8] Wilhelm Gesenius,[9] and Aaron Ember,[10] claim that Elohim is a form of majestic plural in the Torah. For example (1 Samuel 26:19): In the Hebrew Bible such plural forms are most commonly used . A singular. How to react to a students panic attack in an oral exam? Thereby I need to be honest with the original text and not interpret any principle that predates its conception. Glad it added some value have a blessed day! Some Jewish scholars suggest that "us" means that it was God and the angels, as if God is consulting with them (for the angels sake, since God doesn't actually need to consult with anyone). In another words, it was written in Genesis 1:3 a God whose personal name in Hebrew was Elohim. does modern Hebrew have spelling pronunciations? Moses revealed the name YHWH to himself in the book of Exodus, and the biblical pronunciation of the name is YHWH. This name is revered by Jews, Christians, and Muslims alike, and it is widely regarded as one of their holy names. @RebChaimHaQoton for what. Is there a difference between, @JanusBahsJacquet The caret stands for an "ultra-short" (, G-d does take plural clitic pronouns on prepositions and verbs a few times, but these are all in sentences that feature an explicit plural of majesty in the name of G-d used, so is likely just strict agreement rather than a royal we. Site design / logo 2023 Stack Exchange Inc; user contributions licensed under CC BY-SA. iii. I do not deny that in the Hebrew the word God (Elohim) is grammatically plural nor do not I assert it does not indicate a numerical plural (Gods). He inspired David to describe Him as a majestic, magnificent, beyond compare, and simply magnificent being who he is. Does Biblical Hebrew have a plural of majesty? Is there a first person verb with a plural subject in Hebrew? masters) (Mal. Allah is translated into English Bibles as God (translated into Hebrew as Hebrew Elohim), whereas the majority of mainstream Bible translations in the language refer to Allah as Hebrew. And I dont want you to confuse principle with usage. by Pastor Rudolph P. Boshoff, Jewish Paganism and its Ugaritic influence. By clicking Accept all cookies, you agree Stack Exchange can store cookies on your device and disclose information in accordance with our Cookie Policy. Thanks for contributing an answer to Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange! The second most common term applied to God is "Lord" and it is almost always plural. Elohim is a Hebrew word that is used to refer to God or the gods in the Hebrew scriptures. The royal we, majestic plural (pluralis majestatis), or royal plural, is the use of a plural pronoun (or corresponding plural-inflected verb forms) used by a single person who is a monarch or holds a high office to refer to themselves. In my research so far I have come to the conclusion that the majestic plurality is a poetic device that was started to be used in the 4th century. Jews could look back and see Jesus there in Genesis! Yet in Keil and Delitzsch's commentary on Genesis 1:26, we find, Since the plural Elohim is used of Moses at Ex 7:1 and one person at Psalm 45:6 is there any grammatical reason to see it as a literal numeric plural? When did it first appear in Israel? I also doubt that the Hebrew word in Genesis 1:1 is a object marker. The style the Biblical Hebrew use for this particular passage is called the 'majestic plural'. What are the various forms of biblical literature? The easiest way to dismiss the argument that the plural pronouns applied to God can be explained as "Plural of Majesty" is to observe that the Hebrew has many examples of plural pronouns also being applied to single human individuals. To read a later principle back into these passages of the Old Testament is anachronistic and unacceptable from the standpoint of sound hermeneutics. Also you don't invent biblical hebrew grammar.. Stack Exchange network consists of 181 Q&A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers. But always in all scripture, when Elohim is used for the God of Israel, it is used in a grammatical singular sense, because it governs the singular verb and adjective, speaking of one, this is the simple interpretational key to determining its use when refencing the God of Israel, and any other would be a clear perversion to one of the most fundamental rules of hermeneutics (interpreting it differently than its use in every other occurrence, to satisfy one's own theological understanding). To suggest that Paul uses the "Royal We" here, is as wrong as it is unwarranted. One of the most memorable nosistic phrases comes from Queen Victoria, who would say, "We are not amused," when turning up her nose at a tasteless joke. Or Mayim which has dual ending though refers to water. And if God does sometimes imitate earthly royalty, what proof is there that He is doing that on this occasion? As a type of nosism, the majestic plural emphasizes something or honors someone in a stylistic way. In Gen.1:26, elohim is being used in its natural plural sense, by the plural verb "let us make", and the possessive pronoun "our". The royal we is commonly employed by a person of high office, such as a monarch or other type of sovereign. Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience. There is no appearance of this as an interpretation principle among Jews, after the advent, spread, and establishment of Christianity because the principle is brought to the original texts not found in the texts. Rome: Gregorian & Biblical Press) state plainly (114eN): The we of majesty does not exist in Hebrew. masters) (Gen. 24.